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19.4 (2018)

Open

a) If $G$ is the free product of infinitely many finitely generated free groups with cyclic amalgamation, then is $\psi(G) = 1$?
b) If $G$ is the free product of infinitely many finitely generated free abelian groups with cyclic amalgamation, then is $\psi(G) = 1$?

Contributor: M. K. Azarian

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